One of my Trinitarian friend used this text to show that the writer was equating the Son with God because he was called "p.noute" in the Sahidic Coptic. Did the Coptic writer really believe the Son is God the same as the Father ? Let's find out.
Based on the grammatical rules, the definite article "The" is used to talk about specific or known things. These are usually things that have been mentioned before or that the listener is familiar with. And the indefinite "A" (or "an") is used to talk about things which are not specific. These are usually things that haven't been mentioned before or that the listener is unfamiliar with.
Let's say I tell you: "I went to see a doctor last week."
Explanation: I went to see some doctor. I didn't mention him before, and you are not familiar with him. Another option is that it is not important who he is. So I use the word "a".
Then I say: "The doctor said I should get more rest."
Now you already know which doctor I am referring to. I am referring to the doctor I went to see. So I use the word "the."
Another example:
Luke 2:9-10 (WEB)
9 Behold, an angel of the Lord stood by them, and the glory of the Lord shone around them, and they were terrified. 10 The angel said to them, “Don’t be afraid, for behold, I bring you good news of great joy which will be to all the people.
We know Greek does not have an indefinite article, like our a or an. So, generally speaking, a Greek definite noun will have a form of the definite article (ho), which will become "the" in English. A Greek indefinite noun will appear without the definite article, and will be properly rendered in English with "a" or "an." We are not "adding a word" when we translate Greek nouns that do not have the definite article as English nouns with the indefinite article. We are simply obeying the rules of English grammar that tell us that we cannot say "Snoopy is dog," but may say "Snoopy is a dog."
For example, in John 1:1c, the clause we are investigating, ho logos is "the word," as all translations accurately have it. If it was written simply logos, without the definite article ho, we would have to translate it as "a word."[*]
So in Luke we have "an" angel who appeared to them. But why is it in the next verse the writer used the definite article? Obviously, because this is the angel mentioned in v.9. Similarly, at John 1:18, the Coptic has "the G/god, the only Son," i.e. the god previously mentioned at John 1:1c, who is the Son of God.
[The angel who appeared to them is not the angel of the LORD in the Old Testament. Some Christians thought this angel is the malakh of the OT, because this angel was called "the angel." According to them, when the definite article “the” is used, it is specifying a unique being, separate from the other angels. We know the angel of the Lord speaks as God, identifies Himself as God, and exercises the responsibilities of God.]
Based on the grammatical rules, the definite article "The" is used to talk about specific or known things. These are usually things that have been mentioned before or that the listener is familiar with. And the indefinite "A" (or "an") is used to talk about things which are not specific. These are usually things that haven't been mentioned before or that the listener is unfamiliar with.
Let's say I tell you: "I went to see a doctor last week."
Explanation: I went to see some doctor. I didn't mention him before, and you are not familiar with him. Another option is that it is not important who he is. So I use the word "a".
Then I say: "The doctor said I should get more rest."
Now you already know which doctor I am referring to. I am referring to the doctor I went to see. So I use the word "the."
Another example:
Luke 2:9-10 (WEB)
9 Behold, an angel of the Lord stood by them, and the glory of the Lord shone around them, and they were terrified. 10 The angel said to them, “Don’t be afraid, for behold, I bring you good news of great joy which will be to all the people.
We know Greek does not have an indefinite article, like our a or an. So, generally speaking, a Greek definite noun will have a form of the definite article (ho), which will become "the" in English. A Greek indefinite noun will appear without the definite article, and will be properly rendered in English with "a" or "an." We are not "adding a word" when we translate Greek nouns that do not have the definite article as English nouns with the indefinite article. We are simply obeying the rules of English grammar that tell us that we cannot say "Snoopy is dog," but may say "Snoopy is a dog."
For example, in John 1:1c, the clause we are investigating, ho logos is "the word," as all translations accurately have it. If it was written simply logos, without the definite article ho, we would have to translate it as "a word."[*]
So in Luke we have "an" angel who appeared to them. But why is it in the next verse the writer used the definite article? Obviously, because this is the angel mentioned in v.9. Similarly, at John 1:18, the Coptic has "the G/god, the only Son," i.e. the god previously mentioned at John 1:1c, who is the Son of God.
[The angel who appeared to them is not the angel of the LORD in the Old Testament. Some Christians thought this angel is the malakh of the OT, because this angel was called "the angel." According to them, when the definite article “the” is used, it is specifying a unique being, separate from the other angels. We know the angel of the Lord speaks as God, identifies Himself as God, and exercises the responsibilities of God.]
* See: BeDuhn's book: Truth In Translation
For more studies: Does Coptic John 1:1 contradict Coptic John1:18 ?
For more studies: Does Coptic John 1:1 contradict Coptic John1:18 ?
So, ignore the first part of the verse that clearly states No man has seen God?
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